Did the Lord Jesus Christ Not Speak to His People in the Old Testament?

An excellent introductory exposition of Jesus Christ – THE angel of the Lord – in the OT. May God grant us the Spirit of wisdom and revelation as we set ourselves apart from distractions and read this well-written answer to a good question. (The beautiful video is worth the time also.) Thank you, Scarlett, for posting this…

Spiritual Abuse Sanctuary

A Series of Answers to Common Questions

Sam Shamoun

Question:

In the opening statements of the book of Hebrews the author states that God spoke through his Son “in these last days” (cf. Hebrews 1:1-2). The author is obviously implying that God hadn’t spoken through Jesus during the OT period which undermines the Trinitarian view that the Angel of Yahweh is the OT appearance of the prehuman Christ, or that Christ appeared to the OT prophets.

Answer:

We first read the text within its immediate context before addressing the objection:

“In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his…

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4 thoughts on “Did the Lord Jesus Christ Not Speak to His People in the Old Testament?

    1. Oh, yes. So much yes. In fact, I am going to have to arrange some time to chew and digest. My husband is so awesome about taking the kids to give me time with God. There is some heart surgery going on! Some of the old, necrotic tissue needs to be debrided as new tissue takes its place.

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